-2
$\begingroup$

My teacher stated, oxygen has a greater electronegativity than hydrogen. Thus, in water, oxygen develops partial negative charge and hydrogen develops develops partial positive charge.

I am not able to comprehend what is meant by partial negative and positive charge? (https://i.sstatic.net/8T0RO.jpg) I have always imagined charge as being integral. How can a charge be partial (ie, non integral).

Improve this question
$\endgroup$
9
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Welcome to Chemistry! What efforts have you made to get the answer to your question? Effort is the imaginary currency you use in chem SE to gain answers. $\endgroup$
    – Safdar Faisal
    Commented May 31, 2021 at 6:00
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Akhil Please have a look at this answer. It might quickly clarify what is exactly meany by partial charge. chemistry.stackexchange.com/a/40781/21349 $\endgroup$
    – Mitradip Das
    Commented May 31, 2021 at 6:12
  • $\begingroup$ Have you considered probability density of valence electron distribution for polar bonds ? $\endgroup$
    – Poutnik
    Commented May 31, 2021 at 7:19
  • $\begingroup$ @Poutnik not really necessary. A distribution of point charges can have electrical dipole. Of course for equilibrium one has to go quantum, but I think this can be answered nevertheless. $\endgroup$
    – Alchimista
    Commented May 31, 2021 at 13:22
  • $\begingroup$ @Alchimista Sure. The electrical dipole is other way to say there is biased distribution of electrons. $\endgroup$
    – Poutnik
    Commented May 31, 2021 at 13:25

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1
$\begingroup$

If two identical atoms are bound in a covalence, the center of gravity (barycentre) of the bonding electrons is exactly in the middle of the distance between the two nucleus. The atoms are not charged. If two different atoms are bound in an ionic bond, the center of gravity of the electrons are exactly situated on one of the nucleus. This atom is charged, or has a total charge. If two different atoms are bound in a covalent bond, the center of gravity of the electron is somewhere between one nucleus and the middle of the distance separating the nucleus. In that cas, we say that this atom has a partial charge.

Improve this answer
$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ While I see the analogy, I don't see why one should use the gravitational field or the gravity force instead of electrical field or electric force. The need of quantum level, that can be omitted here, isn't removed using the gravitational analogy, so why? It just dangerously mixes different facts. Indeed, (almost) nothing change in the baricentre of a hypothetical covalent NaCl and the real ionic one. And a novice can be confused. Downvote. $\endgroup$
    – Alchimista
    Commented May 31, 2021 at 13:12

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.