I am confused on the topic of electronegative nucleophiles, and polar aprotic solvents.
From my understanding, the more electronegative a nucleophile is, the weaker of a nucleophile it will be, because atoms will be less likely to share its electron density.
However, in a polar aprotic solvent, because H-bonding cannot occur, it seems as if the trend of nucleophilicity is such that $\ce{F- > Cl- > Br- > I-}$.
Can someone please clarify how this is possible? I would have expected $\ce{F-}$ to be the LEAST nucleophilic nucleophile in a polar aprotic solvent, because it is the most electronegative atom. Therefore according to the first point I learned, I thought it should be the weakest nucleophile.
All this is what I've learned through reading Kaplan's Organic Chemistry Review.