The title may not completely explain my exact doubt so I'll explain it here:
My teacher gave me the following problem during a lecture about SN1 reactions and I had to determine the order of the rate of reaction ($k$):
As in the rate determining step of an SN1 reaction, the halogen (leaving group) would leave to form the carbocation. I simply looked at which $\ce{C-X}$ bond would easily break and concluded that:
$k_1 > k_2 > k_3$ where $k_i$ is the rate of the given reactions respectively.
I had another approach to this by looking at acid-conjugate base relations.
As $\ce{HI}$ is a strong acid, it's conjugate base, $\ce{I-}$ would be a weak base hence making it a good leaving group (Weak bases are generally good leaving groups).
Which was correct as my teacher further explained. But he mentioned some more points, which I think, weren't suitable to be talked about but it still confused me.
He mentioned the solvation of the respective halide ions ($\ce{X-}$) in a polar protic solvent (here, $\ce{H2O}$):
$$\ce{Cl-} > \ce{Br-} > \ce{I-}$$
as the iodide ion is larger in size, the water molecules don't surround and 'trap' it as much as they surround the chloride or bromide ion.
But here's where things got a bit confusing. Technically, if the chloride ion is solvated the most, it is trapped by the solvent and isn't a naked nucleophile anymore while the iodide is. So Iodide would have more tendency to attack the substrate back.
Looking at it this way, the chloride ion was seeming to be a better leaving group which it obviously isn't supposed to be.
So changing the way of looking at this is changing the conclusions as well. The former approach leads to the correct answer, which is:
$$k_1 > k_2 > k_3$$
Yet, the latter seems to indicate:
$$k_3 > k_2 > k_1$$
What's going on here? I would really appreciate if someone could clear out this confusion.