There many sources on the internet saying that cyclopropane is more acidic than cyclopropene because the conjugate base in latter would have antiaromaticity which would destabilize it.
But in this explanation we are assuming that the central $\ce{C-H}$ bond in cyclopropene ionizes. I argue that the $\ce{C(sp^2)-H(s)}$ bond should ionize because of two factors:
The $\ce{sp^2}$ carbon would better accommodate the negative charge than the central $\ce{sp^3}$ carbon.
Consequent conjugate base would not contain anti aromaticity.
My logic can also be rationalized by considering acidity order between straight chain alkanes and alkenes.
This would mean inversion of the order which is incorrect according to experimental data. What is the flaw in my reasoning?