My book - NCERT Chemistry for Class XII -Page 218 Contains the following paragraph:
An examination of the $E^0 \ce{(M^{3+}/M^{2+})}$ values (Table 8.2) shows the varying trends. The low value for $\ce{Sc}$ reflects the stability of $\ce{Sc^{3+}}$ which has a noble gas configuration. The highest value for $\ce{Zn}$ is due to the removal of an electron from the stable $\ce{d^{10}}$ configuration of $\ce{Zn^{2+}}$. The comparatively high value for $\ce{Mn}$ shows that $\ce{Mn^{2+}(d^6)}$ is particularly stable, whereas comparatively low value for $\ce{Fe}$ shows the extra stability of $\ce{Fe^{3+}(d^6)}$. The comparatively low value for $\ce{V}$ is related to the stability of $\ce{V^{2+}}$ (half-filled $\ce{t_{2g}}$ level, Unit 9).
Initially they mention that the Low value for Standard Electrode Potential of $\ce{Sc^3+/Sc^2+}$ is due to the higher stability of $\ce{Sc^3+}$ which makes sense as it would have a lesser tendency to move to the $+2$ oxidation state.
But later on, they mention that the Lower value of SEP of $\ce{V^3+/V^2+}$ is due to the stability of $\ce{V^2+}$.
I get that the half filled $\ce{t_{2g}}$ configuration would make $\ce{V^2+}$ more stable but then, shouldn't the SEP value become higher rather than being low? As $\ce{V^3+}$ would have more tendency to move to $\ce{V^2+}$