Why is the molecular dipole the main determinant of whether a substance dissolves in another substance?

Consider a covalent molecule such as carbon tetrafluoride. In $\ce{CF4}$, each $\ce{C-F}$ bond is polar covalent. However, this substance is considered overall non-polar because each bond dipole moment cancels out each other, resulting in a negligible molecular dipole moment. This explains why it is non-polar. But how can that be the case? Certainly, such a substance with such strong bond dipoles would have some sort of strong interaction with polar solvents? Why do we not take the individual bond dipole moments into consideration?

• – orthocresol Sep 24 '17 at 10:05
• @orthocresol Just to clarify, I completely understand why CF4 is nonpolar. What I don't understand is why the polar C-F bonds don't seem to affect it's interactions with polar solvents. – Tan Yong Boon Sep 24 '17 at 11:42
• I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's based on false premise. – Mithoron Sep 24 '17 at 13:19
• @PrittBalagopal You can actually extend my question to all nonpolar covalent molecules with polar individual bond dipole moments. It is not restricted to CF4 or CO2. – Tan Yong Boon Sep 24 '17 at 22:54
• @Mithoron Thanks for sharing the insightful link. However, I don't think it answers my question – Tan Yong Boon Sep 25 '17 at 14:56