It is now routine in the scientific community that "main-group hypervalent molecules, under certain conditions, tend to be better represented by resonance structures involving ionic bonds, rather than the utilisation of d-orbitals". For example, PF5 is better represented by a total of 5 "[PF4]+ [F]-" resonance structures, than sp3d hybritals on the phosphorus atom. However, after reading the Wikipedia article for "molecular orbital"s carefully, I began to think that they are, strictly speaking, mathematically the same-
The article said that "When the energy difference between the atomic orbitals of two atoms is quite large, one atom's orbitals contribute almost entirely to the bonding orbitals, and the other atom's orbitals contribute almost entirely to the antibonding orbitals. Thus, the situation is effectively that one or more electrons have been transferred from one atom to the other. This is called an (mostly) ionic bond.": maybe the ionic nature of a molecular orbital formed by a 3d orbital of P and a 2p orbital on F can be considered a special case of this statement, as P's 3d orbitals >>>>> F's 2p orbitals in terms of energy levels.
The question is- is my guess true?