Let $\sum_A \nu_A A \rightarrow \sum_B \nu_B B$ be a general reaction whose progress during time interval $dt$ is measured by $d\zeta$, so the amount of reactants consumed and products generated in mole would be $d N_i=\nu_i d\zeta$, wherein, $\nu_i$ would take negative values for the reactants being consumed.
From on the other hand we already know from the second law of thermodynamics that the reaction will occur in the direction in which $\sum_i \mu_i dN_i \le 0$, wherein, $\mu_i=\frac{\partial G}{\partial N_i}\bigr|_{p,T,N_j\;(j\ne i)}$ are the chemical potentials, so that we would have: $$\left(\sum_i \mu_i \nu_i\right)\; d\zeta \le 0$$ The equality implies reversibility and should denote the equilibrium (am I right?). At the equilibrium it is clear that the progression of the reaction should vanish and we should have $d\zeta=0$, so that the term $\left(\sum_i \mu_i \nu_i\right)$ should be free to gain any positive, zero or negative finite value. However, this is not what Guggenheim has written in his Thermodynamics book. He has first assumed in a given direction the reaction progresses, so that in that direction $d\zeta>0$, then has canceled out this positive quantity from the inequality and achieved: $\left(\sum_i \mu_i \nu_i\right) \le 0$, and eventually concluded that at the equilibrium the equality holds and we should have $\left(\sum_i \mu_i \nu_i\right) = 0$.
But how is it justified to be true when we already know at the equilibrium $d\zeta>0$ doesn\t hold and we should instead write: $d\zeta=0$?
Thanks for bearing with me, I'm new to chemistry.