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Post Reopened by Jan, Wildcat, user7951, M.A.R., Martin - マーチン♦
Post Closed as "Duplicate" by Geoff Hutchison, orthocresol, CommunityBot
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ringo
ringo
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I'm wondering what is the exact reasoning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is less bigsmaller when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasoning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreasing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasoning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

I'm wondering what is the exact reasoning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is less big when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasoning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreasing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasoning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

I'm wondering what is the exact reasoning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is smaller when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasoning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreasing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasoning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

removed mathjax from title, retag, spelling
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Mithoron
Mithoron
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Variation of angle in $\ce{GeX_2}$GeX2 molecules where $\ce{X}$X is an halogen

I'm wondering what is the exact reasonningreasoning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is less big when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasonningreasoning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreassingdecreasing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasonningreasoning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

Thank you in advance.

Variation of angle in $\ce{GeX_2}$ molecules where $\ce{X}$ is an halogen

I'm wondering what is the exact reasonning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is less big when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasonning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreassing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasonning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

Thank you in advance.

Variation of angle in GeX2 molecules where X is an halogen

I'm wondering what is the exact reasoning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is less big when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasoning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreasing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasoning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

Source Link
ParaH2
ParaH2
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Variation of angle in $\ce{GeX_2}$ molecules where $\ce{X}$ is an halogen

I'm wondering what is the exact reasonning to explain why in $\ce{GeX_2}$ the angle $\widehat{XGeX}$ is less big when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$.

I ask this question because I had an exams some days ago and I failed in this question and for me my reasonning is not false.

What I said is that

From $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$ the difference of electronegativity between the germanium and the halogen is decreassing. Then the electrons in the $\ce{Ge-X}$ bond are more near $\ce{X}$ when $\ce{X}=\ce{F}$ than when $\ce{X}=\ce{I}$. Then the two bonds repulse themselves more for $\ce{GeI_2}$ than for $\ce{GeF_2}$ and so the angle increase from $\ce{F}$ to $\ce{I}$.

Why my reasonning is absolutely false, and what could be the perfect one?

Thank you in advance.