In Morrison & Boyd, I found this question:
Butan-1-ol (b.p. $118~\mathrm{^\circ C}$) has a much higher boiling point than its isomer diethyl ether (b.p. $35~\mathrm{^\circ C}$), yet both compounds show the same solubility ($8~\mathrm{g}$ per $100~\mathrm{g}$) in water.
How do you account for these facts?
Now, as far as I know, the boiling point depends on the inter molecular forces. Since in the alcohol, there is hydrogen bonding in the O-H group, it has a higher boiling point than the ether. But in an aqueous solution, the solubility is also related to hydrogen bonding. Since there is more hydrogen bonding in the alcohol, I would expect it to have a higher solubility in water, but that is not the case. So how do we explain it? I am completely confused by this question. What is the answer?