In the book, Thermodynamics for Process Simulation, the authors propose to derive an expression for the fugacity coefficient from a pressure-explicit equation of state, as an example among many others.
Assuming, $P = P(T, v)$ or $z =\frac{Pv}{RT} = z(T, v)$, the calculations lead to,
$$\left(\frac{\partial \ln \phi}{\partial v}\right)_T = \left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}\right)_T-\left(\frac{\partial \ln z}{\partial v}\right)_T + \left(\frac{1}{v}-\frac{P}{RT}\right) \tag1$$
where $\phi$ is the fugacity coefficient.
What I don't understand is, when they integrate, they get,
$$\ln \phi = z - 1 - \ln z + \frac{1}{RT}\int_{\infty}^v \left(\frac{RT}{v}-P\right)\mathrm{d}v \tag2$$
Can someone explain me how they find $z-1-\ln z$ by integrating the first two terms of $(1)$ between $\infty$ and $v$?
When integrating the first two terms, it leads to $$\left[z - \ln z \right]_{\infty}^v$$ which I understand, but then I don't get the final result.
I suppose it's linked to the values of $z$ when the volume is very large and when the volume is "$v$" but it does't make sense for me.
I would have assume to get $$\left[z - \ln z \right]_{\infty}^v = v - \ln v - \left[z(v^{\infty}) - \ln z(v^{\infty}) \right]$$ and nothing else.
But I am missing something probably obvious.
Thank you in advance for your help!