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Jun 11, 2020 at 10:20 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Sep 8, 2017 at 15:37 comment added Ivan Neretin Yeah, now that's spot on.
Sep 8, 2017 at 15:29 comment added schneiderfelipe I also further improved the answer. I hope it looks good now.
Sep 8, 2017 at 15:28 history edited schneiderfelipe CC BY-SA 3.0
Further improved answer.
Sep 8, 2017 at 15:01 comment added schneiderfelipe I think it is still related to the question, since it addresses the fact that $\psi(\theta + \pi)$ is not necessarily equal to $\psi(\theta)$, as was asked, but I will rephrase it to make it more explicit.
Sep 7, 2017 at 18:11 comment added Ivan Neretin That's good, but now your answer is unrelated to the question, since the latter was about $\theta+\pi$.
Sep 7, 2017 at 15:42 comment added schneiderfelipe You're right, I edited and corrected the mistake. Thanks!
Sep 7, 2017 at 15:41 history edited schneiderfelipe CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected a bad mistake.
Sep 6, 2017 at 21:30 comment added Ivan Neretin You have it backwards. $\varphi\to\varphi+2\pi$ takes you to the same point on the sphere, so the value of $\psi$ must be the same. $\theta\to\theta+\pi$ takes you to a different point.
Sep 6, 2017 at 20:50 history edited schneiderfelipe CC BY-SA 3.0
Improved grammar.
Feb 23, 2017 at 4:04 vote accept BEWARB
Feb 19, 2017 at 14:26 history answered schneiderfelipe CC BY-SA 3.0