Why is the ideal gas law usable in most gas problems?

For example, in a problem like this: "Suppose you have $1.00\: \mathrm{mol}$ of a gas at $0^\circ \mathrm{C}$, occupying a container which is $500\: \mathrm{mL}$ in size. What is the pressure of this gas in $\mathrm{atm}$?"

The ideal gas law is was applied to solve that problem and the answer was $44.8\: \mathrm{atm}$. But isn't the ideal gas law only applicable to gases which are in high temperatures and low pressure? Because the kinetic energy overcomes the intermolecular bonds and the molar volume is negligible, etc etc.

But the conditions for this "gas" are low temperature and consecutively high pressure which is basically a stamp for real gases so why isn't the real gas law applied to this problem instead?

Why is the ideal gas law usable in most gas problems?

For example, in a problem like this: "Suppose you have $1.00\: \mathrm{mol}$ of a gas at $0\:^\circ \mathrm{C}$, occupying a container which is $500\: \mathrm{mL}$ in size. What is the pressure of this gas in $\mathrm{atm}$?"

The ideal gas law is was applied to solve that problem and the answer was $44.8\: \mathrm{atm}$. But isn't the ideal gas law only applicable to gases which are in high temperatures and low pressure? Because the kinetic energy overcomes the intermolecular bonds and the molar volume is negligible, etc etc.

But the conditions for this "gas" are low temperature and consecutively high pressure which is basically a stamp for real gases so why isn't the real gas law applied to this problem instead?

Why is the ideal gas law usable in most gas problems?

For example, in a problem like this: "Suppose you have 1.00 mol of a gas at 0ºC, occupying a container which is 500 mL in size. What is the pressure of this gas in atmospheres?"

The ideal gas law is was applied to solve that problem and the answer was 44.8 atm. But isn't the ideal gas law only aplicable to gases which are in high temperatures and low pressure? Because the kinetic energy overcomes the intermolecular bonds and the molar volume is negligible, etc etc.

But the conditions for this "gas" are low temperature and consecutively high pressure which is basically a stamp for real gases so why isn't the real gas law applied to this problem instead?

Why is the ideal gas law usable in most gas problems?

For example, in a problem like this: "Suppose you have $1.00\: \mathrm{mol}$ of a gas at $0^\circ \mathrm{C}$, occupying a container which is $500\: \mathrm{mL}$ in size. What is the pressure of this gas in $\mathrm{atm}$?"

The ideal gas law is was applied to solve that problem and the answer was $44.8\: \mathrm{atm}$. But isn't the ideal gas law only applicable to gases which are in high temperatures and low pressure? Because the kinetic energy overcomes the intermolecular bonds and the molar volume is negligible, etc etc.

But the conditions for this "gas" are low temperature and consecutively high pressure which is basically a stamp for real gases so why isn't the real gas law applied to this problem instead?