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Apr 28, 2017 at 7:23 history edited paracetamol
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Jul 30, 2014 at 21:05 vote accept Dissenter
Jun 17, 2014 at 20:33 comment added Greg I am sorry, but since [R1] = [P1] and [R2]=P2] the actual equqtion is K = [P1][P2] / ([P1][P2]) = 1, and it is true for any P1 and P2. You already rewrote this equation assuming that P1=P2, yet not assuming that the concentration of a material is same with itself.
Jun 16, 2014 at 5:33 comment added Dissenter Why not? For this reaction Keq = [product]^2/[reactant]^2 = 1, and if you take the square root of Keq, you get 1 = [product]/[reactant]. Only way for that to be true is for [product]=[reactant]. Now I do understand that for non-symmetric reactions K = 1 does not imply 50%.
Jun 16, 2014 at 2:41 comment added Greg Yes, K=1, but why do you say "this implies that the reaction reaches an extent of 50% at equilibrium."? K=1 doesn't imply anything like that.
Jun 15, 2014 at 23:07 answer added ron timeline score: 9
Jun 15, 2014 at 20:55 answer added Aesin timeline score: 3
Jun 15, 2014 at 20:11 history asked Dissenter CC BY-SA 3.0