My Momma bought a copper pan made for induction because it was the only one she could find that she wanted and was big enough to pan fry half a chicken.

But I noticed something odd about the copper. It seems to be magnetized. I thought that was impossible because copper is paramagnetic, not ferromagnetic. How is that possible that a paramagnetic material could be magnetized and remain magnetic even when a magnet is nowhere near it? Is it possible that they purposely put tiny amounts of iron in the copper to magnetize it and let it retain its magnetism kind of like how neodymium magnets aren't pure neodymium?

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    $\begingroup$ A paramagnetic material could not be magnetized and remain magnetic. So the only remaining option is "tiny amounts of iron", except that they are probably not really tiny. I believe your pan is made of iron, and copper is just a thin lining all over it. $\endgroup$ – Ivan Neretin Nov 15 '17 at 5:29
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    $\begingroup$ Also, copper is diamagnetic, not paramagnetic. $\endgroup$ – Eashaan Godbole Nov 15 '17 at 7:15
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    $\begingroup$ Also, copper is a good conductor and will as such for a large variety of frequencies (though, not the highest ones) have an excellent susceptance by virtue of induced eddy currents. Just try dropping a magnet through a copper pipe and measure the time it takes. $\endgroup$ – Stian Yttervik Nov 15 '17 at 7:48
  • $\begingroup$ Is the copper cladded on iron/steel? $\endgroup$ – Oscar Lanzi Nov 15 '17 at 11:20
  • $\begingroup$ For why copper is diamagnetic: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/59248/… $\endgroup$ – pentavalentcarbon Nov 15 '17 at 17:08

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