0
$\begingroup$

Consider a covalent molecule such as carbon tetrafluoride. In $\ce{CF4}$, each $\ce{C-F}$ bond is polar covalent. However, this substance is considered overall non-polar because each bond dipole moment cancels out each other, resulting in a negligible molecular dipole moment. This explains why it is non-polar. But how can that be the case? Certainly, such a substance with such strong bond dipoles would have some sort of strong interaction with polar solvents? Why do we not take the individual bond dipole moments into consideration?

$\endgroup$
14
  • 3
  • $\begingroup$ @orthocresol Just to clarify, I completely understand why CF4 is nonpolar. What I don't understand is why the polar C-F bonds don't seem to affect it's interactions with polar solvents. $\endgroup$ Sep 24, 2017 at 11:42
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's based on false premise. $\endgroup$
    – Mithoron
    Sep 24, 2017 at 13:19
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @PrittBalagopal You can actually extend my question to all nonpolar covalent molecules with polar individual bond dipole moments. It is not restricted to CF4 or CO2. $\endgroup$ Sep 24, 2017 at 22:54
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Mithoron Thanks for sharing the insightful link. However, I don't think it answers my question $\endgroup$ Sep 25, 2017 at 14:56

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.