Following mechanism is commonly proposed for the Wurtz-Fittig-Reaction:
The red marked reaction steps is a nucleophilic substitution (SN). I suppose that this is a SN1 reaction, with an intermediate carbocation, rather than a SN2 reaction. In my opinion the resulting carbocation is good enough stabilized throughout the aromatic ring and therefore SN1 should be preferred, moreover because of the steric hindrance of the aromatic ring.
Is this assumption right? Thanks a lot for your help.