Can the eigenvalue for a quantum mechanical operator be zero?


closed as too broad by Tyberius, Mithoron, paracetamol, Pritt Balagopal, ron Aug 24 '17 at 15:04

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    $\begingroup$ yes it could be, here you could find a satisfying answer link $\endgroup$ – Jaafar Mehrez Aug 24 '17 at 11:31
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    $\begingroup$ The question is way broader than you seem to think; you might want to be more specific. As it stands now, the answer is "yes", but it is a really useless "yes", about the same level as if you were asking "can a difference of two numbers be zero". Sure it can; so what? $\endgroup$ – Ivan Neretin Aug 24 '17 at 11:31

$S_z$ (spin along the z-axis) is a QM operator, and it frequently is zero - such as in closed-shell molecules.

Also note that the zero energy point of quantum mechanics can be defined in more than one way: some quantum chemistry programs use "all electrons and nuclei at infinite separation", whereas some solid state programs used "neutral atoms at infinite separation". Nevertheless, they evaluate the total energy.


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