Wikipedia has defined the Inductive effect thus:
"In Chemistry and Physics, the inductive effect is an experimentally observable effect of the transmission of charge through a chain of atoms in a molecule, resulting in a permanent dipole in a bond."
Recently, I learned from a teacher that the inductive effect of any atom/group is always measured with respect to hydrogen.
Under this definition, we would ideally attach the atom/group with an atom of hydrogen and observe the direction of the dipole moment caused by the difference in electronegativity between hydrogen and the atom/group in question. If the electrons-initially positioned at the middle of the bond-are pushed toward hydrogen, the atom/group is termed as a "$+I$", electron-donating group. On the other hand, if the electrons are pulled toward the atom/group, it is termed as a "$-I$", electron-withdrawing group. Thereafter, this atom/group will always exhibit this type of inductive effect. Even if a situation does arise, in which it appears as though an atom/group that exhibits the $-I$ effect with hydrogen is exhibiting the $+I$ effect with another atom/group, this must be the cause of other dominating effects such as the mesomeric effect and in those cases also, it is said that the atom exhibits the $-I$ and not the $+I$ effect.
To illustrate the clear distinction between the definition put forward by the teacher and the one on Wikipedia, let us consider a molecule of $\ce{Cl2}$.
Under the definition on Wikipedia, it is clear that $\ce{Cl2}$ is a non-polar molecule (i.e. No permanent dipole moment has been experimentally observed in this molecule). Hence, no inductive effect is in play and neither of the two $\ce{Cl}$ atoms show either the $+I$ or $-I$ effect.
On the other hand, if we work with the definition put forward by the teacher, we observe that an atom of $\ce{Cl}$ exhibits the $-I$ effect when attached to an atom of hydrogen, being more electronegative than it. Therefore, in the $\ce{Cl2}$ molecule, no permanent dipole exists as a result of the $-I$ effect of both chlorine atoms cancelling away from opposite directions.
It appears that only one of these two definitions is definitely correct and I am confused as to which one that is.