I was reading about Raoult's law which states:
It states that the partial vapour pressure of each component of an ideal mixture of liquids is equal to the vapour pressure of the pure component multiplied by its mole fraction in the mixture.
Regarding the molecular origin of this law, Peter Atkins in his book writes:
The molecular origin of Raoult's law is the effect of the solute on the entropy of the solution. In the pure solvent, the molecules have a certain disorder & a corresponding entropy; the vapour pressure then represents the tendency of the system & its surroundings to reach a higher entropy.
[...] Because the entropy of the solution is higher than the pure solvent, the solution has a lower tendency to acquire an even high entropy by the solvent vaporising. In other words, the vapour pressure of the solvent in the solution is lower than that of the pure solvent.
I've not understood his explanation especially the bold lines above.
$\bullet$ Firstly, how could vapour pressure represent the tendency of the system & its surroundings to reach a higher entropy?
$\bullet$ Why does the solution has a lower tendency to acquire an even high entropy by the solvent vaporising ? After-all every system has greater tendency to acquire high entropy, isn't it? Is not this statement contradictory to the Second law by saying lower tendency to acquire high entropy?
Could anyone please explain that to me?