So there was a question in coordination chemistry regarding the nature of $\ce{[Cr(CO)_6]}$
The book had the question under VBT and solved it using "strong ligands cause all electrons to pair up". $$\ce{[Ar] 3d^5 4s^1\rightarrow [Ar] 3d^6}\text{ and all electrons paired}$$
Later we learnt about Crystal Field Theory and splitting in octahedral complexes. From that the configuration of the above complex should be $$\ce{3d_{t_{2g}}^5 \ 3d_{e_g}^0\ 4s^1}$$
My answer was paramagnetic and outer orbital complex.
So why does electron from $\ce{4s}$ orbital pair up with $\ce{4d}$ electron and make the complex diamagnetic? I only know VBT and CFT for coordinate chemistry, so how is this explained by CFT?
I didn't find much good of an explanation on the internet except that $\ce{s}$-orbitals must be emptied to take part in hybridization. But then why is it wrong to use the concept of hybridization for transition metal complexes? My personal guess is maybe the splitting energy is so high for $\ce{4s}$ that somehow lower energy gap/mixes with $\ce{3d}$ orbital.