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I was going through the Hartree-Fock algorithm, transforming the spatial molecular orbitals {$\psi _i$} to be a linear combination of Roothaan basis set {$\phi_i$}. From my knowledge {$\psi_i$} is set to be orthonormal, and there is a linear transformation $[\psi_1\ ...\psi_K] = [\phi_1\ ...\phi_K]\begin{bmatrix}C_{11}&C_{12}&...&C_{1K}\\C_{21}&C_{22}&...&C_{2K}\\...\\C_{K1}&C_{K2}&...&C_{KK}\end{bmatrix}$ Where {$\phi_i$} is not necessarily orthogonal, albeit being normalized.

Let the coefficient matrix be $C$. With that in mind, and that matrix representation of Fock operator (transformation) under the new basis set is related to the old one by a similarity transform $F = C^{-1}F'C$, I went on calculating the element of Fock matrix under each basis: $$\langle \psi_i|f|\psi_j\rangle = \Sigma_{\mu}C_{\mu i}^*\langle \phi_\mu |f\ |\Sigma_{\nu}C_{\nu j}\phi_\nu\rangle$$ $$= \Sigma_\mu\Sigma_\nu (C)^\dagger_{i\mu}\langle\mu|f|\nu\rangle C_{\nu j}$$ $$= (C^\dagger F'C)_{ij}$$ So basically I have got $F = C^\dagger F'C$ and $F = C^{-1}F'C$. I am not an expert on maths but $C$ looks suspiciously unitary. Let $C^\dagger C = L$ where $L\in M_{K\times K}(\mathbb{C})$ Since $C$ is non-singular there can be $C^\dagger = LC^{-1}$ substituting this to $F = C^\dagger FC = LC^{-1}F'C = LF$ so $L$ can be none other than $I$.

This causes a problem. The overlap matrix $S:=\langle \mu|\nu\rangle$ has a special equality:$$(C^\dagger SC)_{ij} = \Sigma_{k,l}C^\dagger _{ik}\langle k|l\rangle C_{lj} = \Sigma_{k,l}C^* _{ki}\langle k|l\rangle C_{lj} =\langle \psi_i|\psi_j\rangle = \delta_{ij}$$ This means $$C^\dagger SC = I$$ but $C^\dagger = C^{-1}$ so $S$ is similar to $I$. Similar matrices have the same eigenvalue. $S$ clearly does not have all 1 eigenvalues. What went wrong here?

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  • $\begingroup$ "C looks suspiciously unitary" - it isn't, at least in general,that's your mistake. Look at your last equation which clearly shows the Hermitian conjugate of C is not the inverse of C unless S is the Identity matrix. More generally C in the AO basis is not unitary, but in the MO basis it is - this is almost the point of the basis transformation. $\endgroup$
    – Ian Bush
    Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 11:19
  • $\begingroup$ In fact to answer your question in the title what can be inferred about the overlap matrix if the coefficient matrix in the AO basis is unitary is that the overlap matrix is the identity matrix. $\endgroup$
    – Ian Bush
    Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 11:23
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks Ian! Although I am still stumbling against what went wrong in my reasoning in the beginning. $\endgroup$
    – chikako
    Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 12:55
  • $\begingroup$ I'll write a proper answer in a bit, but v. Busy at moment. But I think you may be a little confused between the atomic orbital and molecular orbital bases. The latter is unitary, the former is not. $\endgroup$
    – Ian Bush
    Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 13:15

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