I have a question about the derivation of the possible atomic terms of an atom. Consider an atom with $N$ electrons in the central-field approximation, with hamiltonian
$$ H_{0} = \sum_{i=1}^{N} \left[ - \frac{1}{2} \nabla ^{2}_{i} + V _{c}(ri)\right] $$
We can write its states as the product of the states of one electron, which are characterized by the quantum numbers $n,\ l,\ m_{l}$ and $m_{s}$. We know that the configurations we get like this are degenerate: all configurations with same values of $n$ and $l$ but differents $m_{l}$ and $m_{s}$ have the same energy. These configurations also have well-defined values of total orbital angular momentum and spin $L$ and $S$, and we can classify them in atomic terms $^{2S + 1}L$, that have the same energy. However, if we consider corrections for the central field approximation, the degeneracy of these terms is broken, and we can determine which ones have higher or lower energy by Hund's rules.
My doubt is the following: thinking from the perspective of perturbation theory, I am considering the various states of the same electronic configuration as unperturbed states:
$$ | \psi^{(0)} \rangle = |n_{1},l_{1},m_{l1},m_{s1}, ..., n_{N},l_{N},m_{lN},m_{sN} \rangle $$
and taking as perturbation a potential equal to $V_{ee} - V_{c}$, where $V_{ee}$ is the Coulomb interaction between the electrons. The use of degenerate perturbation theory generates $|\psi \rangle$ eigenstates that are also functions with well-defined $L,\ S,\ M_{L}$ and $M_{S}$, since the perturbed hamiltonian commutes with the spin and orbital angular momentum operators (I'm ignoring spin-orbit interaction for now). But why do the possible $L,\ S,\ M_{L},\ M_{S}$ values of the disturbed states have to be the same as the values of the undisturbed states? Couldn't the perturbation generate states with well-defined angular moments but with different eigenvalues?