I am very confused right now about my approach to this question could somebody help me out with this. I reasoned my answer as given below
Let's assume if a complex reaction is of zero order. It implies its R.D.S. has order 0 ,but R.D.S. is an elementary reaction. So, that particular elementary step of reaction is 0 order.(for the obvious reasons)
So if we take that particular (elementary) step as individual reaction then it will be elementary and will have 0 order.
R.D.S. here implies Rate determining step
But many people whom I shared my doubt with, explained it on basis of Molecularity = Order Rule for elementary step,but it does not sound logical to me and also bit confusing as if we see pseudo first order reaction there molecularity is 2 but order is 1.