I'm a beginner in quantum mechanics, and I'm pretty much confused with the orbital angular momentum of electron in s-orbital of hydrogen atom. I've read that average angular momentum of an electron in $1s$ orbital of $\ce{H}$-atom is $0 \pu{kgm^2s^-1}$, but when I took the wave function of $1s$ orbital of $\ce{H}$-atom and solving by the following way is giving me instantaneous angular momentum is $0\pu{kgm^2s^-1}$.
My way of solving:
The momentum operator is $\hat p = -i\hbar\nabla$ and the $\psi_{1s}= k \times e^{\frac{-r}{a_0}}$, where $k$ is normalizing constant
Applying momentum operator for $1s$ orbital,
$$\hat p \psi_{1s} = p \psi_{1s}$$ I'm getting some thing like $\hat p \psi_{1s} = -(x \hat i+ y\hat j+z\hat k)k^{'}e^\frac{-r}{a_0}$, which implies that the momentum $\overrightarrow p$ of electron in $1s$ orbital is $$\overrightarrow p = k^{''}(x \hat i + y \hat j + z \hat k)$$
So, angular momentum can now be given by $$\overrightarrow L = \overrightarrow r \times \overrightarrow p$$ The position vector $\overrightarrow r = x\hat i + y\hat j + z\hat k$
As the position vector, $\overrightarrow r$ and the momentum vector, $\overrightarrow p$ are in anti-parallel directors at every point in space, I have concluded that $\overrightarrow L = \overrightarrow 0$ at every instant, which contradicts to what I've read.
(NOTE: The source from where I've read is not very much reliable, but I didn't find any thing related to this any where else)