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If the question seems rather "unscientific", be kind to accept my apology. My textbook is being highly unclear about the topic and I need to know the answer to this question before I go on with my studying.

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    $\begingroup$ Sure, in any trivial reaction involving the reformation of the reactants. Entropy is a state function and if you reform the reactants then the change in entropy is 0. $\endgroup$
    – Dissenter
    Commented Aug 12, 2014 at 15:56
  • $\begingroup$ So then zero entropy change can hardly be found in biphasic mixtures, huh? $\endgroup$
    – M.A.R.
    Commented Aug 12, 2014 at 16:05

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Yes, entropy change of reversible process is zero.

This will also help

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    $\begingroup$ Yeah, but there's no such thing like reversible process in real world... $\endgroup$
    – Mithoron
    Commented Apr 14, 2015 at 13:38

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