Below is a picture of the radial component of the wave function distribution for the 1 through 3s orbitals. It makes sense to me that there are points where the wave function is 0, since by definition, a radial node is where the wave function = 0.
What confuses me is the following graph of the 2p orbital wave function distribution. Since the 2p orbital is shaped like a tear drop, if you went a certain distance r from the nucleus, there would be areas that the tear drop doesn't cover (since a tear drop isn't spherical). Wouldn't the probability of finding an electron in those empty space areas be 0? How can you draw a radial wave function when the 2p orbital depends on angles as well?
Source of images: http://faculty.uml.edu/ndeluca/84.334/topics/topic1.htm