I have this confusion regarding the statement of Raoult's Law. It states that
The partial pressure of each component of an ideal mixture of liquids is equal to the vapour pressure of the pure component multiplied by its mole fraction in the mixture.
Does mole fraction in the mixture mean the combined liquid-vapour mixture or only the liquid which is left after evaporation on attaining equilibrium?
I had this problem in my textbook, one mole of two volatile substances each is mixed. Pure pressures of both of them are given. Should I just use mole fraction as one-half? Aren't some of the moles gonna go into vapour phase?