I was studying the Finkelstein reaction and all sources through which I have studied this reaction indicate that the reaction uses $\ce{NaI},$ where $\ce{I-}$ acts as the nucleophile which will then replace $\ce{X}$ from the alkyl halide $\ce{R-X}.$
This is an $\mathrm{S_N2}$ reaction, hence we use a polar aprotic solvent (PAS, usually acetone) as PAS stabilizes the $\ce{Na+}$ cation. We know that while using a PAS the order of nucleophilicity is
$$\ce{F-} > \ce{Cl-} > \ce{Br-} > \ce{I-}.$$
The part I am struggling with is that even though $\ce{F-}$ is a better nucleophile than $\ce{I-}$ in a PAS, why do we still use $\ce{NaF}$ rather than $\ce{NaI}?$