In chemistry textbooks there is generally written that ionic equilibrium can’t be achieved in the case of strong electrolytes (because their degree of dissociation is almost equal to 1) but it can be achieved in the case of weak electrolytes(because their degree of dissociation is much much less than 1) Now my question is that what does degree of dissociation has to do with whether the reverse reaction is possible or not. Suppose we have a strong electrolyte which almost dissociates completely now why don’t the reaction occurs in the backward direction(please don’t say that it is so because the dissociation is almost 100%. If so then what, it doesn’t mean that reaction can’t occur in the backward reaction there is possibility that the almost 100% dissociated ions may again recombine to make the reaction go backwards and reach a state where the rate of the forward equals the rate of backward). But this doesn’t happen(acc. To textbooks) why?
According to me(my understanding of Arrhenius’ theory of electrolytic dissociation) the electrolytes dissociate in water to furnish ions and these ions are continuously recombining to form the electrolyte molecules and thus are in equilibrium and therefore the strong electrolytes must also follow the same principle but we can say that in this case particularly the equilibrium is very highly established towards the product side(but it will be still said to be equilibrium however product sided it may be)
One more fact in favour of my argument i.e. the values of equilibrium constants are present on the web for strong acids so if the equilibrium never exists in the case of strong electrolytes then how come we are able to calculate these constants?
NOTE- I’m a high school student.