To titrate $\ce{Cl-}$ with $\ce{Ag+}$ we use chromate $\ce{CrO4^2-}$ as an indicator. The titration reaction is:
$$\ce{Ag+ + Cl- <=> AgCl}\tag{R1}$$
$$K_1 = \frac{1}{K_\mathrm{sp}(\ce{AgCl})} = \frac{1}{1.8×10^{-10}} = 5.56×10^9\tag{1}$$
The theory says that after all $\ce{Ag+}$ are reacted with $\ce{Cl-}$ the end point of titration is detected when excess $\ce{Ag+}$ reacts with the indicator chromate to form silver chromate:
$$\ce{2 Ag+ + CrO4^2- <=> Ag2CrO4}\tag{R2}$$
$$K_2 = \frac{1}{K_\mathrm{sp}(\ce{Ag2CrO4})} = \frac{1}{1.1×10^{-12}} = 9.1×10^{11}\tag{2}$$
However, as you see, $K_1 < 100K_2,$ so when both $\ce{Cl-}$ and $\ce{CrO4^2-}$ are present, $\ce{Ag+}$ will react with $\ce{CrO4^2-}$ and not with $\ce{Cl-}$.
But our teacher and everywhere on Google they say $\ce{AgCl}$ precipitates before $\ce{AgCrO4}$. And that should be true since this method of titration (Mohr's method) has been used long ago.
But, how can that be true? I don't understand why. Where have I mistaken?