# Is chirality a property of only molecules with exactly 1 chiral centre? [closed]

I have seen chirality being defined in a number of ways in terms of a molecule not being superimposable with its mirror image. My syllabus has a statement: "know that optical isomerism is a result of of chirality in molecules with a single chiral centre". This seems odd because surely you can have a have optical isomerism between molecules with more than 1 chiral centre so why a single. Overall, I am asking for either a confirmation that the statement is incorrect or an explanation of where my understanding is wrong.

• No, it's property of virtually everything but simplest stuff. – Mithoron Oct 21 '19 at 21:37
• – Karsten Theis Oct 22 '19 at 1:24

• If by "chiral centre" you mean a carbon atom with 4 different substituents, then consider $\ce{C(H)(X)(G_{R})(G_{S})}$ (where $\ce{G_{R}}$ represents a chiral group with the "R" configuration) has 4 different substituents but is achiral (plane of symmetry). Conversely, $\ce{C(H)(X)(G_{R})(G_{R})}$ with only 3 different substituents is chiral. – ron Oct 21 '19 at 22:02