At low concentrations for which the ideal bp elevation/fp depression expressions usually apply, molarity is linearly proportional to molality, therefore the statements are equivalent.
This webpage explains nicely why low concentrations are important:
Raoult's law only works for low concentration solutions. Why? Well, in order for our approximation to work, the interactions between the solute and solvent molecules must be nearly identical. If the interactions are stronger, then the heat of vaporization of the solvent will change and thus our whole approximation falls apart. Since we know that intermolecular forces vary greatly between molecules, the affect of those forces must be kept at a minimum by keeping the solute concentration real low.
In any case (as explained by additional statements in the abovementioned website, which discusses dissociation of ionic solutes), the statement made in the answer to your exam would not be true generally even if molality instead of molarity was mentioned.
The point of the question seems to be that a student should associate a universal response of the solvent that is independent of solute with colligative properties as described using Raoult's law, which is behavior most often approximated by dilute solutions (the statement that Raoult's law only applies to dilute solutions happens to be false, btw), and that in this realm of application molarity is approx linearly proportional to molality.