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I have been taught that orbitals can overlap only when all of them are in the same energy state. That is the reason why the orbitals hybridise in a kind of 'mixing up' and give rise to orbitals having same energy state. But my question is: Why do the orbitals need to be in the same enrgy state to overlap with orbitals of other atoms?

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    $\begingroup$ Hybridization is not a real physical process. $\endgroup$
    – Greg
    Jun 3 '19 at 14:41
  • $\begingroup$ @Greg — Well could you be a bit more explicit? $\endgroup$
    – SteffX
    Jun 3 '19 at 14:43
  • $\begingroup$ :/ If you have 4 identical bonds in product and non-identical orbitals in substrate... - you confusing cause and result. $\endgroup$
    – Mithoron
    Jun 3 '19 at 15:19
  • $\begingroup$ Related: How does localized bonding theory and hybridisation work? $\endgroup$ Jun 3 '19 at 16:29
  • $\begingroup$ I wouldn't normally vote to close as duplicate when the questions don't match, but considering this is already getting closed as unclear and you're already very likely to get your answer by reading the answers to that question, and the fact that this question isn't worded importantly search-wise . . . $\endgroup$
    – M.A.R.
    Jun 3 '19 at 18:28