enter image description here Why should there be an antinode at r=0? I can comprehend the presence of node at r=0 for p,d,f orbitals; but I don't understand that of s-orbital. Is there any intuitive approach?

  • $\begingroup$ Welcome to Chemistry.SE! We have a site policy for homework questions. Please edit your question to include your attempt at the problem, where you got stuck, and let us know where you're finding difficulty so we may best help you. $\endgroup$ – Melanie Shebel May 18 '19 at 7:31
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ possible duplicate of : 2s orbital wavefunction has non-zero probability at r=0?(duplicate) from another site on the network (physics.SE). Interestingly, that question is also a duplicate. $\endgroup$ – William R. Ebenezer May 18 '19 at 7:36
  • $\begingroup$ @ANBENZENE please do research (at least a little!) on google before asking a query, it really helps. $\endgroup$ – William R. Ebenezer May 18 '19 at 7:37
  • $\begingroup$ A nice little meta.SE post for other users in doubt $\endgroup$ – William R. Ebenezer May 18 '19 at 7:47
  • $\begingroup$ Ask yourself: what do ordinate and abscissa in the plots represent? Then follow the logical implications of a value y=0. $\endgroup$ – Buck Thorn May 18 '19 at 8:21

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy