The following question was asked in an exam today:
I chose the option (a), but the correct answer given was (b). Following is the explanation why I chose (b):
Step 1 (Reaction with $\ce{PBr_3}$): $\ce{Br}$ substitutes $\ce{OH}$. Hence, the product is $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2Br}$
Step 2 (Reaction with $\ce{Mg}$ in the presence of dry ether): $\ce{Mg}$ gets inserted between $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2}$ and $\ce{Br}$. Hence, the product is $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2MgBr}$
Step 3 (Opening of epoxide and attacking of grignard reagent): First, the $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2MgBr}$ will break into $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2^-}$ and $\ce{MgBr^+}$. Then, $\ce{MgBr^+}$ will attack $\ce{O}$ of the epoxide. After that, $\ce{O}$ will take its electron away from 2nd $\ce{C}$ (referring to the catalyst used) due to the greater stability of secondary carbocation.
Further, $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2^-}$ will attack the carbocation and hence form the product $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-OMgBr}$
Final step (Hydrolysis): On hydrolysis, $\ce{CH(CH_3)_2-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-OH}$ will be our product. Phew!
Where I am wrong and what should be the correct mechanism?