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Timeline for Why is absolute zero unattainable?

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Oct 20, 2016 at 8:08 comment added porphyrin I think that what I wrote is correct in the context of the question but not complete in a general sense. The average energy, translation, vibration, rotation is $<E>=k_BT/2$ for each 'squared' energy term with $k_B$ being Boltzmann's constant. This assumes that a Boltzmann distribution applies, i.e. that each energy level has a smaller population than the one immediately below it in energy and that the number of levels is infinite. A population inversion as in the laser or in nuclear spin pulsed NMR experiments is then described as having a negative temperature but just for those levels.
Oct 19, 2016 at 16:09 history edited paracetamol CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 15, 2016 at 23:05 comment added The Vee @porphyrin Temperature is not a measure of motional energy. All it is is a ratio between dU and dS at constant V and N. That's how it can be negative in many exotic systems and (effectively) in some that have become quite familiar, for example. You can perfectly have motion at $T=0$. A harmonic oscillator does.
Oct 15, 2016 at 11:46 answer added yeoman timeline score: 12
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Oct 14, 2016 at 13:08 answer added Andrei timeline score: 9
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Oct 14, 2016 at 0:28 history tweeted twitter.com/StackChemistry/status/786725312952492033
Oct 13, 2016 at 22:26 history edited orthocresol CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 13, 2016 at 21:58 answer added Ivan Neretin timeline score: 173
Oct 13, 2016 at 21:13 comment added porphyrin Both explanations are wrong. (a) It is quite possible nowadays to obtain temperatures in the milli-kelvin range. This is done to remove thermal noise on very sensitive instruments. (b) very briefly, temperature is a measure of motional energy, molecule still have what is called zero-point vibrational energy at zero K, and crystals have lattice motion (phonons) that also have zero point energies, so it is not true that the total energy is zero at zero K. Atoms still have the same electronic energy as at room temperature.
Oct 13, 2016 at 21:07 answer added Cort Ammon timeline score: 78
Oct 13, 2016 at 18:54 comment added Jon Custer Since systems can only approach it logarithmically, one would have to seriously question if it is physically possible.
Oct 13, 2016 at 18:20 history edited paracetamol CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 13, 2016 at 18:18 comment added Ivan Neretin Both are utter nonsense. Absolute zero is physically possible (not that we can attain it, though).
Oct 13, 2016 at 18:04 history asked paracetamol CC BY-SA 3.0