# Return to Question

3 Improved readability

In Boyle's law (P$$p$$ inversely proportional to V$$V$$ for constant n$$n$$ and T$$T$$), P$$p$$ refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas.

However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that P$$p$$ refers to the pressure 'of'of the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied BYby the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)?

Shouldn't the P$$p$$ in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure 'of'of (i.e. applied BYby) the gas?

In Boyle's law (P inversely proportional to V for constant n and T), P refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas. However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that P refers to the pressure 'of' the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied BY the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)? Shouldn't the P in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure 'of' (i.e. applied BY) the gas?

In Boyle's law ($$p$$ inversely proportional to $$V$$ for constant $$n$$ and $$T$$), $$p$$ refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas.

However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that $$p$$ refers to the pressure of the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied by the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)?

Shouldn't the $$p$$ in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure of (i.e. applied by) the gas?

2 Added the constraints for Boyle's law

In Boyle's law (P inversely proportional to V for constant n and T), P refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas. However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that P refers to the pressure 'of' the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied BY the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)? Shouldn't the P in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure 'of' (i.e. applied BY) the gas?

In Boyle's law (P inversely proportional to V), P refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas. However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that P refers to the pressure 'of' the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied BY the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)? Shouldn't the P in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure 'of' (i.e. applied BY) the gas?

In Boyle's law (P inversely proportional to V for constant n and T), P refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas. However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that P refers to the pressure 'of' the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied BY the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)? Shouldn't the P in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure 'of' (i.e. applied BY) the gas?

1

# Pressure in Ideal Gas Law

In Boyle's law (P inversely proportional to V), P refers to the applied (external) pressure on the gas. However, in the ideal gas law, my textbook says that P refers to the pressure 'of' the gas, which I think refers to the pressure applied BY the gas. How is this possible, since the ideal gas law is derived from Boyle's law (and Charles' and Avogadro's laws)? Shouldn't the P in the ideal gas law then refer to the applied (external) pressure like in Boyle's law, not the pressure 'of' (i.e. applied BY) the gas?