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Apr 8, 2023 at 13:56 history edited Mithoron
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Dec 11, 2020 at 17:01 comment added Jon Custer @YasirSadiq - because instead of a jump in volume, there is a jump in the derivative of volume (for example). And for a third order phase transition there would be a jump in the second derivative of volume... That is how the order of a phase transition is defined.
Dec 11, 2020 at 14:16 comment added Kashmiri Thank you buttonworth. I was interested in the second order transition in which there isn't a jump but just a bend in the plot of V with T
Dec 11, 2020 at 13:57 comment added Buttonwood An example for a), first order of phase transition, is the one about liquid water $\ce{->}$ gaseous water / steam; you have both a sudden jump in $\Delta{}V/\Delta{}T$ and the energy needed for this transition ends in latent heat. Guess what, not all transitions involve latent heat (i.e., compare with your lecture notes, references at disposition, etc.).
Dec 11, 2020 at 13:37 history edited Kashmiri CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 11, 2020 at 4:14 comment added Kashmiri Thank you Mr Jon Custer. I was interested in the actual mechanism as to why the kink was there.
Dec 10, 2020 at 19:34 comment added Jon Custer Because they are second order phase transitions? GO back to the definition of a second order phase transition, such as in en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phase_transition.
Dec 10, 2020 at 17:40 history asked Kashmiri CC BY-SA 4.0