Skip to main content
modified formatting
Source Link
Safdar Faisal
  • 7.1k
  • 4
  • 28
  • 54

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all non-volatile solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_{Vapor}=P_{Vapour}^0\chi_{solvent}$$$$P_\text{vapour}=P_\text{vapour}^0\chi_\text{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_{solute}+\chi_{solvent}=1$$$$\chi_\text{solute}+\chi_\text{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all non-volatile solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_{Vapor}=P_{Vapour}^0\chi_{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_{solute}+\chi_{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all non-volatile solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_\text{vapour}=P_\text{vapour}^0\chi_\text{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_\text{solute}+\chi_\text{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?

added 13 characters in body
Source Link

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all non-volatile solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_{Vapor}=P_{Vapour}^0\chi_{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_{solute}+\chi_{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_{Vapor}=P_{Vapour}^0\chi_{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_{solute}+\chi_{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all non-volatile solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_{Vapor}=P_{Vapour}^0\chi_{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_{solute}+\chi_{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?

Source Link

When is Raoult's Law valid for solid-liquid solution?

Raoult's Law for solid-liquid solution is stated as such in my books that it is applicable for all solutes.

However different solutes must have different attractive or repulsive forces and in such a case, all of them will probably hamper vaporisation in different ways.

Then how come can we simply define the law as: $$P_{Vapor}=P_{Vapour}^0\chi_{solvent}$$ where $$\chi_{solute}+\chi_{solvent}=1$$ Here the equations do not provide any information about the solute.


Is the law valid for only a class of solutes?