4 added 62 characters in body edited Jun 1 at 8:44 Buck Thorn 5,83322 gold badges77 silver badges3333 bronze badges I have recently learnt about atomic structure and the bohrBohr model of the atom and have observed a discrepancy between it and my previous knowledge based on physics. For simplicity, assume the atom is of hydrogen. Total Eenergy of electron= -13.6electron ((z^2)/(n^2)) eV/atom $$E= -13.6 \left(\frac{z^2}{n^2}\right) \pu{eV/atom}$$ where z$$z$$ is atomic number, n$$n$$ is energy level. Thus, at n=∞$$n=\infty$$, E=0$$E=0$$. Now, by the relation Total Energy=Energy = potential energy/2 (from TE=-KE=PE/2$$TE=-KE=PE/2$$), PE=0/2$$PE=0/2$$ so PE=0$$PE=0$$ Now, the infinite energy level (n=∞$$n=\infty$$) occurs at a finite distance from nucleus (as the difference in distance between the energy levels decreases at higher energy levels). Thus, PE=0$$PE=0$$ at a finite distance from the nucleus. But, I have previously studied that PE$$PE$$ of a system of a negative charge  (electron) and positive charge(nucleus) is =0$$=0$$ only at an infinite distance. Thus, the discrepancy. Please let me know where I have gone wrong. I have recently learnt about atomic structure and the bohr model of the atom and have observed a discrepancy between it and my previous knowledge based on physics. For simplicity, assume the atom is of hydrogen. Total E of electron= -13.6 ((z^2)/(n^2)) eV/atom where z is atomic number, n is energy level Thus, at n=∞, E=0 Now, by the relation Total Energy= potential energy/2 (from TE=-KE=PE/2) PE=0/2 so PE=0 Now, the infinite energy level (n=∞) occurs at a finite distance from nucleus (as the difference in distance between the energy levels decreases at higher energy levels). Thus, PE=0 at a finite distance from the nucleus. But, I have previously studied that PE of a system of a negative charge(electron) and positive charge(nucleus) is =0 only at an infinite distance. Thus, the discrepancy. Please let me know where I have gone wrong. I have recently learnt about atomic structure and the Bohr model of the atom and have observed a discrepancy between it and my previous knowledge based on physics. For simplicity, assume the atom is of hydrogen. Total energy of electron $$E= -13.6 \left(\frac{z^2}{n^2}\right) \pu{eV/atom}$$ where $$z$$ is atomic number, $$n$$ is energy level. Thus, at $$n=\infty$$, $$E=0$$. Now, by the relation Total Energy = potential energy/2 (from $$TE=-KE=PE/2$$), $$PE=0/2$$ so $$PE=0$$ Now, the infinite energy level ($$n=\infty$$) occurs at a finite distance from nucleus (as the difference in distance between the energy levels decreases at higher energy levels). Thus, $$PE=0$$ at a finite distance from the nucleus. But, I have previously studied that $$PE$$ of a system of a negative charge  (electron) and positive charge(nucleus) is $$=0$$ only at an infinite distance. Thus, the discrepancy. Please let me know where I have gone wrong. 3 edited tags | link edited Jun 1 at 6:02 Shashwat Tomar 1633 bronze badges 2 edited tags | link edited Jun 1 at 5:40 Shashwat Tomar 1633 bronze badges 1 asked Jun 1 at 5:20 Shashwat Tomar 1633 bronze badges