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Tyberius
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I was trying to normalize the wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ A & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This is done simply by evaluating

$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} \lvert \psi (x) \rvert^2 dx = 1 $$$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} | \psi (x) |^2 dx = 1 $$

I found that

$$ A = \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} $$

This gives the normalized wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This was quite straight forward... too straight forward for my liking. My question is twofold:

  1. Is my derivation above correct? And
  2. How shall I deal with the ``$\pm$'' sign in front of the fraction? Should that be included in the expression for $\psi (x)$? Do I then have two different wave functions for the same particle, one negative and one positive? Maybe one of them do not carry any "physical significance", and can be dropped?

I was trying to normalize the wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ A & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This is done simply by evaluating

$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} \lvert \psi (x) \rvert^2 dx = 1 $$

I found that

$$ A = \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} $$

This gives the normalized wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This was quite straight forward. My question is twofold:

  1. Is my derivation above correct?
  2. How shall I deal with the $\pm$ sign in front of the fraction? Should that be included in the expression for $\psi (x)$? Do I then have two different wave functions for the same particle, one negative and one positive? Maybe one of them do not carry any "physical significance", and can be dropped?

I was trying to normalize the wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ A & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This is done simply by evaluating

$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} | \psi (x) |^2 dx = 1 $$

I found that

$$ A = \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} $$

This gives the normalized wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This was quite straight forward... too straight forward for my liking. My question is twofold:

  1. Is my derivation above correct? And
  2. How shall I deal with the ``$\pm$'' sign in front of the fraction? Should that be included in the expression for $\psi (x)$? Do I then have two different wave functions for the same particle, one negative and one positive? Maybe one of them do not carry any "physical significance", and can be dropped?
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orthocresol
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Normalizing Normalization of the wave function psi wavefunction φ(x) = A

slight clean up
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Gaurang Tandon
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I was trying to normalize the wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ A & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This is done simply by evaluating

$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} \lvert \psi (x) \rvert^2 dx = 1 $$

I found that

$$ A = \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} $$

This gives the normalized wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This was quite straight forward... too straight forward for my liking. My question is twofold:

  1. Is my derivation above correct? And
  2. How shall I deal with the ``$\pm$'' sign in front of the fraction? Should that be included in the expression for $\psi (x)$? Do I then have two different wave functions for the same particle, one negative and one positive? Maybe one of them do not carry any "physical significance", and can be dropped?

I was trying to normalize the wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ A & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This is done simply by evaluating

$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} \lvert \psi (x) \rvert^2 dx = 1 $$

I found that

$$ A = \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} $$

This gives the normalized wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This was quite straight forward... too straight forward for my liking. My question is twofold:

  1. Is my derivation above correct? And
  2. How shall I deal with the ``$\pm$'' sign in front of the fraction? Should that be included in the expression for $\psi (x)$? Do I then have two different wave functions for the same particle, one negative and one positive? Maybe one of them do not carry any "physical significance", and can be dropped?

I was trying to normalize the wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ A & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This is done simply by evaluating

$$ \int\limits_{-b}^{3b} \lvert \psi (x) \rvert^2 dx = 1 $$

I found that

$$ A = \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} $$

This gives the normalized wave function

$$ \psi (x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x<-b \\ \pm \frac{\sqrt{b}}{2} & -b \leq x \leq 3b \\ 0 & x>3b \end{cases} $$

This was quite straight forward. My question is twofold:

  1. Is my derivation above correct?
  2. How shall I deal with the $\pm$ sign in front of the fraction? Should that be included in the expression for $\psi (x)$? Do I then have two different wave functions for the same particle, one negative and one positive? Maybe one of them do not carry any "physical significance", and can be dropped?
Removed mathjax from the title , removed homework tag, removed an extra thank you line
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Yoda
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